Random discussion time!
If a party is taking place and a man approaches a woman, they end up going somewhere private, rub uglies, and one or both have regrets the next day - Would classify this as "non-consensual sex"?
A. Both the man and woman are drunk.
B. The man is sober and the woman is drunk.
C. The woman is sober and the man is drunk.
D. Both the man and the woman are sober.
I am asking because a lot of men in recent years have gotten in a lot of trouble for sleeping with drunken women. The kicker is that they, themselves, were drunk as well. To me, non-consensual sex happens when one person is sober and the other is not, or both people involved are drunk. And by drunk, I don't just mean buzzed but full-on blitzed. You can't logically consent to sex when you are heavily under the influence. This means that if a sober man sleeps with a drunken woman, it can be classified as "rape" to a certain degree, the same with a sober woman sleeping with a drunken man. If both people involved are drunk though, I believe it cancels things out because you can't charge one person with "rape" without holding a double standard against the other person.
I hear a lot of cases like this happening in colleges. This is why the "rape statistics" of women are so high, or so they claim. If a woman is drunk and has sex only to later regret it, she can call it rape and get away with it, regardless if the man she slept with was sober or not.
I am not a drinker myself but I feel like more people need to address this. Unless there is consent prior to being drunk between two people, you really shouldn't be having sex with someone while blitzed out of your mind. It just sounds like a bad idea not only for women but men too.
Thoughts?
If a party is taking place and a man approaches a woman, they end up going somewhere private, rub uglies, and one or both have regrets the next day - Would classify this as "non-consensual sex"?
A. Both the man and woman are drunk.
B. The man is sober and the woman is drunk.
C. The woman is sober and the man is drunk.
D. Both the man and the woman are sober.
I am asking because a lot of men in recent years have gotten in a lot of trouble for sleeping with drunken women. The kicker is that they, themselves, were drunk as well. To me, non-consensual sex happens when one person is sober and the other is not, or both people involved are drunk. And by drunk, I don't just mean buzzed but full-on blitzed. You can't logically consent to sex when you are heavily under the influence. This means that if a sober man sleeps with a drunken woman, it can be classified as "rape" to a certain degree, the same with a sober woman sleeping with a drunken man. If both people involved are drunk though, I believe it cancels things out because you can't charge one person with "rape" without holding a double standard against the other person.
I hear a lot of cases like this happening in colleges. This is why the "rape statistics" of women are so high, or so they claim. If a woman is drunk and has sex only to later regret it, she can call it rape and get away with it, regardless if the man she slept with was sober or not.
I am not a drinker myself but I feel like more people need to address this. Unless there is consent prior to being drunk between two people, you really shouldn't be having sex with someone while blitzed out of your mind. It just sounds like a bad idea not only for women but men too.
Thoughts?